name property for built-in functions??

Brendan Eich brendan at
Fri Mar 6 09:46:45 PST 2009

On Mar 6, 2009, at 9:12 AM, Mark S. Miller wrote:

> On Thu, Mar 5, 2009 at 11:18 PM, Brendan Eich <brendan at>  
> wrote:
>> A function object (remember joined function objects in ES3?)  
>> created from
>> the compiler-created immutable-shared function may or may not have  
>> a name
>> property in the proposal, but calling toString on a function object  
>> created
>> (to form a closure) should not, in my opinion, get the value of the  
>> "name"
>> property of that particular (or any other) closure object.
>> Setting the name of the compiler-created function by assigning a  
>> property to
>> one of N (N>=1) unjoined function objects could be done. No more  
>> "immutable"
>> but the "shared" still applies. I do not favor this, but it could  
>> be done. I
>> suspect the Obj-J folks want it.
> I strongly object. Such sharing of state, enabled only by sharing the
> same function literal in the code, violates all notions of state
> isolation. It presents all the same hazards that the ES3 sharing of
> mutable RegExp literal objects had. The current draft spec repairs all
> such leaks. Let's not introduce another.

I obviously agree, but let me agree more strongly. Huzzah!


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