Forwards-compatible syntax proposal

Nathan de Vries nathan at
Mon May 26 07:07:24 PDT 2008

On 26/05/2008, at 11:45 PM, Mike Shaver wrote:
> ...splitting the sample program into separate <script> blocks  
> should work just as well as it does in with ES3 today.

By "should work" I'm hoping you mean "will work", because that's the  
crux of what I'm asking :).

The main reason I'm interested in an ES4 script accessing an ES3  
script (I presume the the reverse is not possible?) is that all of my  
library code is ES3, and I'd like to be able to leave it as-is while  
I make the switch to ES4. A simple example would be the ability to  
use an ES3 library like Prototype.js from an ES4 script.

If I needed to pull all ES3 code into an ES4 script tag - and make  
the bare-minimum changes - to be able to use that code in an ES4  
codebase, I (and I think many others) would be a sad panda indeed. Is  
behaviour like this expected to be defined in the ES spec, or is it  
open to vendor interpretation?


Nathan de Vries

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